Codeforces 757C Felicity is Coming!

  显然我们可以发现答案是每个可以互相到达的集合的大小取排列然后依次相乘起来。考虑如何找到每一个互补相不的集合,即hash。(然而我取了3模数才过)


 1 #include<iostream>
 2 #include<cstdio>
 3 #include<algorithm>
 4 #include<vector>
 5 #include<cstdlib>
 6 #include<cmath>
 7 #include<cstring>
 8 using namespace std;
 9 #define maxn 1000010
10 #define md (llg)(1000100000001007)
11 #define MD 1000000007
12 #define md2 (llg)(5456145545456)
13 #define md3 (llg)(100007)
14 #define llg long long
15 #define yyj(a) freopen(a".in","r",stdin),freopen(a".out","w",stdout);
16 llg n,m,a[maxn],p[maxn],l,r;
17
18 struct node
19 {
20     llg a1,a2,a3;
21 }c[maxn];
22
23 bool cmp(const node&a,const node&b)
24 {
25     if (a.a1==b.a1 && a.a2==b.a2) return a.a3<b.a3;
26     if (a.a1==b.a1) return a.a2<b.a2;
27     return a.a1<b.a1;
28 }
29
30 int main()
31 {
32     srand(1346);
33 //    yyj("C");
34     p[0]=p[1]=1;
35     for (llg i=2;i<=1000000;i++) p[i]=p[i-1]*i,p[i]%=MD;
36     cin>>n>>m;
37     llg inc=1;
38     for (llg k=1;k<=n;k++)
39     {
40         llg x;
41         inc=rand()%md+1; llg inc2=rand()%md+1,inc3=rand()%md+1;
42         scanf("%I64d",&x);
43         for (llg i=1;i<=x;i++)
44         {
45             scanf("%I64d",&a[i]);
46             c[a[i]].a1+=inc; c[a[i]].a2+=inc2; c[a[i]].a3+=inc3;
47             c[a[i]].a1%=md; c[a[i]].a2%=md2; c[a[i]].a3%=md3;
48         }
49         inc*=2;
50         inc%=md;
51     }
52     llg ans=1;
53     sort(c+1,c+m+1,cmp);
54     l=1;
55     while (l<=m)
56     {
57         r=l;
58         while (c[r+1].a1==c[l].a1 && c[r+1].a2==c[l].a2 && c[r+1].a3==c[l].a3 && r+1<=m) r++;
59         ans*=p[r-l+1];
60         ans%=MD;
61         l=r+1;
62     }
63 //    for (llg i=1;i<=c[0];i++) ans*=n,ans%=MD;
64     cout<<ans;
65     return 0;
66 }
时间: 2024-10-05 19:39:52

Codeforces 757C Felicity is Coming!的相关文章

CodeForces 757D Felicity&#39;s Big Secret Revealed(状压DP)

题意:给定一个01串,一个有效的n切割定义如下:一个横杠代表一次切割,第一条横杠前面的01串不算,最后一条横杠后面的01串不算,将两个横杠中的01串转化成十进制数字,假设这些数字的最大值是MAX且这些数字囊括了1-MAX的所有数字,则称为一次有效切割.求2~n+1次有效切割的切法. 思路: 由于题目要求包含所有1-MAXN的数字,且n<=75,所以MAXN<=20.另dp[i][j]表示第i位前面有一个横杆且存在j这个状态,接着从第i位开始枚举到第j位为下一个横杆的位置,设这两段横杆之间的数字

【codeforces 718E】E. Matvey&#39;s Birthday

题目大意&链接: http://codeforces.com/problemset/problem/718/E 给一个长为n(n<=100 000)的只包含‘a’~‘h’8个字符的字符串s.两个位置i,j(i!=j)存在一条边,当且仅当|i-j|==1或s[i]==s[j].求这个无向图的直径,以及直径数量. 题解:  命题1:任意位置之间距离不会大于15. 证明:对于任意两个位置i,j之间,其所经过每种字符不会超过2个(因为相同字符会连边),所以i,j经过节点至多为16,也就意味着边数至多

Codeforces 124A - The number of positions

题目链接:http://codeforces.com/problemset/problem/124/A Petr stands in line of n people, but he doesn't know exactly which position he occupies. He can say that there are no less than a people standing in front of him and no more than b people standing b

Codeforces 841D Leha and another game about graph - 差分

Leha plays a computer game, where is on each level is given a connected graph with n vertices and m edges. Graph can contain multiple edges, but can not contain self loops. Each vertex has an integer di, which can be equal to 0, 1 or  - 1. To pass th

Codeforces Round #286 (Div. 1) A. Mr. Kitayuta, the Treasure Hunter DP

链接: http://codeforces.com/problemset/problem/506/A 题意: 给出30000个岛,有n个宝石分布在上面,第一步到d位置,每次走的距离与上一步的差距不大于1,问走完一路最多捡到多少块宝石. 题解: 容易想到DP,dp[i][j]表示到达 i 处,现在步长为 j 时最多收集到的财富,转移也不难,cnt[i]表示 i 处的财富. dp[i+step-1] = max(dp[i+step-1],dp[i][j]+cnt[i+step+1]) dp[i+st

Codeforces 772A Voltage Keepsake - 二分答案

You have n devices that you want to use simultaneously. The i-th device uses ai units of power per second. This usage is continuous. That is, in λ seconds, the device will use λ·ai units of power. The i-th device currently has bi units of power store

Educational Codeforces Round 21 G. Anthem of Berland(dp+kmp)

题目链接:Educational Codeforces Round 21 G. Anthem of Berland 题意: 给你两个字符串,第一个字符串包含问号,问号可以变成任意字符串. 问你第一个字符串最多包含多少个第二个字符串. 题解: 考虑dp[i][j],表示当前考虑到第一个串的第i位,已经匹配到第二个字符串的第j位. 这样的话复杂度为26*n*m*O(fail). fail可以用kmp进行预处理,将26个字母全部处理出来,这样复杂度就变成了26*n*m. 状态转移看代码(就是一个kmp

Codeforces Round #408 (Div. 2) B

Description Zane the wizard is going to perform a magic show shuffling the cups. There are n cups, numbered from 1 to n, placed along the x-axis on a table that has m holes on it. More precisely, cup i is on the table at the position x?=?i. The probl

Codeforces 617 E. XOR and Favorite Number

题目链接:http://codeforces.com/problemset/problem/617/E 一看这种区间查询的题目,考虑一下莫队. 如何${O(1)}$的修改和查询呢? 令${f(i,j)}$表示区间${\left [ l,r \right ]}$内数字的异或和. 那么:${f(l,r)=f(1,r)~~xor~~f(1,l-1)=k}$ 记一下前缀异或和即可维护. 1 #include<iostream> 2 #include<cstdio> 3 #include&l